John1:12 and the right to become children of God
Claim examined: Baptism and conversion
Scriptural Answer
Anthony, As promised, here is the response to your other email... My responses are in Blue to yours in black… You wrote, “[name omitted], in response to your latest email. I am pretty confident that I am addressing someone from the Church of Christ based upon your beliefs. Therefore, I will focus on one point during this email. What must a person do to be saved.” My reply: Yes, you are correct, I am a member of the church of Christ… You wrote, “Before we get started, I know that you mentioned in your previous email in response to some of my questions that people were saved differently under that Old Covenant than they are under the New Covenant. In the King James Version of the Bible, which is the only Bible I use, there is no place that shows a connection between baptism and a new covenant. As a matter of fact, the Bible teaches that Abraham was saved the same way we are saved today. I reference this in detail later in this email.” My reply: We will see if the Bible agrees with what you say above… You wrote, “The Bible teaches that to be saved a person must "believe on the Lord Jesus Christ.” My reply: I agree that the Bible teaches in order to be saved one must believe… You wrote, “In Acts 16:30 the Philippian jailer asked Paul and Silas this crucial question: “What must I do to be saved?” The answer given was “Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou shalt be saved”? It did not say, "Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and be baptized and thou shalt be saved. If baptism is necessary for salvation, then why is nothing said about baptism in Acts 16:31? It’s true that this man was baptized (verse 33), and yet this does not change the fact that Acts 16:31 says, “Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou shalt be saved.” If water baptism was a condition of salvation, then this would have been the perfect place for Paul to have said so.” My reply: If all that is required is for someone to "believe in the Lord" to be saved as you suggest, then why did Paul have to speak the word of the Lord to him and to all who were in his household? (Acts 16:32). Speaking the "word of the Lord" includes ALL essentials for salvation as verse 33 shows that baptism was included in that "word." The essentiality of water baptism is settled in verse 34. Luke used the perfect tense when he referred to the jailer and his family as "having believed." The perfect tense in Greek conveys the idea of past action coming to fruition and being complete in the present. So the jailer is not said to be a believer until after he was baptized! You wrote, “The Bible teaches throughout the New Testament that Faith and Faith Alone is necessary for salvation. In all of the following passages Faith is mentioned as being essential for salvation. In none of these passages is water baptism mentioned. If baptism is a necessary part or an essential part of salvation, they why is nothing said about baptism in these passages. John 1:12-13 John 3:15 John 3:16 John 3:18 John 3:36 John 5:24 John 6:35 John 6:40 John 6:47 John 7:38-39 John 11:25-26 John 20:31 Acts 2:21 Acts 10:43 Acts 11:17 Acts 13:38-39 Acts 15:11 Acts 16:31 Acts 20:21 Romans 1:16 Romans 3:22 Romans 3:26 Romans 3:28 Romans 3:30 Romans 5:1 Romans 10:9 Romans 10:11 Romans 10:13 1 Corinthians 15:1-2 Galatians 2:16 Galatians 3:2-9 Galatians 3:14 Galatians 3:24 Galatians 3:26 Ephesians 2:8-9 2 Thessalonians 2:10 2 Thessalonians 2:12 1 Timothy 4:10 2 Timothy 3:15 Titus 3:8 1 John 5:1 1 John 5:11-13” My reply: Not one of those verses state that we are saved by "faith only.” Have you NOT read John 3:5, and many other verses that teach that water baptism IS required for one to be saved??? Please expl ain to me Anthony how the Eunuch in Acts 8:36 when Philip "preached Jesus to him" in verse 35 how the Eunuch was able to say "See here is water; what hinders me from being baptized"??? Many passages that do not mention belief, including the following: Acts 2:38; 3:19; 8:36-38; 9:17-18 & the parallel in 22:6-16. Jesus does not mention belief in His discussion in Luke 13:1-5. The Scriptures consistently teach that salvation is through faith - not faith alone! We find verses in the NT where only REPENTANCE is mentioned (Luke 13:3; Acts 11:18; 17:30). We find verses in the NT where only CONFESSION is mentioned (Matthew 10:32; 1 John 4:15). We find verses in the NT where only BAPTISM is mentioned (Acts 22:16; Romans 6:3-4; Galatians 3:27; 1 Peter 3:21). REPENTANCE is TO LIFE. (Acts 11:18). CONFESSION is UNTO SALVATION. (Romans 10:10). If one is BAPTIZED they WILL BE SAVED. (Mark 16:16). The Scriptures use the expression "faith alone" in only one verse in the entire Bible! "You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith only" (James 2:24). Speaking to Christians, James was reaffirming the nature of faith, its essence, the fact that faith must obey/comply with stipulated prerequisites before it can avail. That principle applies to pre-conversion faith as well as to post-conversion faith. The only faith that avails is the faith that acts. Until it acts in harmony with divinely stipulated prerequisites, it is a dead faith (James 2:17, 20, 26). As such it cannot save (James 2:14)! It is an incomplete, defective faith! If you can produce one verse from Scripture that states we are saved by "faith alone," I will immediately change my belief. Until then, I will continue to consider myself simply as a Christian because I have responded to the Savior by a faith that obeyed. You wrote, “Ephesians 2:8-9 states "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast." This passage teaches us how a person is saved. This verse says nothing about water baptism. Water baptism is a WORK. You said that baptism is a work of God. God does not need our help to perform any of His works. Baptism is a work (something that man does to please God) and yet the bible teaches again and again that a person is not saved by works. Here are a few examples: Titus 3:5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; 2 Timothy 1:9 Who hath saved us, and called us with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to his own purpose and grace, which was given us in Christ Jesus before the world began, Ephesians 2:8-9 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast. Romans 3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law. Romans 4:5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. ” My reply: Ephesians 2:8 Ephesians 2:8-10 and Titus 3:5-6 do not classify baptism as a "work" that humans perform to earn their salvation. After all, baptism is not a work of man. He did not originate it and water carries no inherent saving power. Baptism is simply the moment in time that God has selected to bestow His forgiveness. Baptism is a work of God, not a work of man!!! It is a divinely appointed prerequisite to salvation. So is faith! "This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He sent" (John 6:29). Titus verifies this reality. The "washing of regeneration" is a reference to water baptism. Hence, water baptism is not classified as a "work of righteousness." It is a work that God requires before He will save us according to His mercy (Titus 3:5). You wrote, “Salvation is not doing something; it is knowing someone (John 17:3). Salvation is not based on what we might do; it is based on what Christ has already done (John 19:30). Salvation is not working; it is resting on on the Work of another (Romans 4:5). The key question is: When is a person saved? Is a person saved at the moment he believes on the Lord Jesus Christ or is a person saved the moment he is baptized in water. If a person is saved at the point of faith, then this means that faith alone is necessary for salvation and that water baptism is something that is done after a person is saved. This would also mean that the requirement for salvation is simple faith in Christ. It is not faith plus baptism. The salvation formula would be: Faith +&nbs p;Nothing = Salvation” My reply: You say "faith plus nothing = salvation." However, by that statement you just eliminated grace! Error is naturally inconsistent with itself. It cannot be harmonized. Speaking the word of the Lord - like preaching Jesus (Acts 8:35) includes the necessity of water baptism - obviously evident from the fact that for both the Eunuch (Acts 8:36) and the jailer (Acts 16:33), the first and immediate reaction to the preaching of the gospel was a desire to be baptized! The truth of the matter is that God saves people by His grace WHEN they manifest an obedient faith - that is, when their faith leads them to repent of their sins, confess Christ with their mouth, and be immersed in water to have the blood of Jesus wash their sins away (Mark 16:16; Luke 13:3; Rom. 10:10; Romans 6:3-4). God judges our faith by our actions. Look at Hebrews chapter 11 and all of the heroes of faith had to DO SOMETHING before their faith was accounted to them. Jesus said, "If you love Me, keep My commandments." (John 14:15). Believing in Jesus is a command - John 3:16, Repentance is a command - Luke 13:3, Confession that Jesus is Lord is a command - Romans 10:9 and finally Baptism for the forgiveness of sins is a command - Mark 16:16. Which one are we to leave out? You wrote, “If a person is saved at the point of water baptism, then this means that faith in Christ is not enough for salvation. This means that faith in Christ is part of the requirement but it is not the total requirement. To be saved a person must not only believe in Christ but he must also be baptized in water. The requirement for salvation is faith plus water baptism. This would also mean that it is possible for a person to be a believer in Christ and yet still be unsaved until he is baptized. The person's sins are not wahsed away until the water baptism takes place. The salvation formula would then be: Faith + Water Baptism = Salvation” My reply: In the Great Commission Jesus said in Matt 28:19, “Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,”… Disciples are made when they are baptized. Jesus said in Luke 24:47, "and that REPENTANCE and REMISSION OF SINS should be preached in His name to ALL nations, beginning at Jerusalem." And what was Peter's message to the Jews? Acts 2:38 says, "Then Peter said to them, "REPENT, and let every one of you be BAPTIZED in the name of Jesus Christ for the REMISSION OF SINS;..." This CLEARLY shows that Peter fulfilled Jesus words in the first gospel sermon. Only those who GLADLY RECEIVED his WORD were BAPTIZED. (Verse 41). Yes, they were BAPTIZED for the REMISSION OF SINS. You wrote, “Only one of these can be correct. The scriptures will determine which is correct. Acts 16:31—“Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and thou shalt be saved” (this statement was made in answer to the question of verse 30, “What must I do to be saved?”). This is a conditional promise. God promises to do something if the sinner does something. If the sinner does his part, God will do His part. So the meaning of Acts 16:31 is this: “If you believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, you shall be saved.” Notice that nothing is said about water baptism being a requirement for salvation. The clear implication is that if a person believes on the Lord Jesus Christ, he will be saved. Ephesians 2:8-9 is a key passage which tells us how a person is saved: “For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: not of works, lest any man should boast” (Eph. 2:8-9). Water b aptism is not mentioned. Salvation takes place at the point of faith. The gospel is “the power of God unto salvation to all who believe” (Romans 1:16), clearly implying that all who believe are saved.” My reply: It is a misuse of Scripture to refer to a single verse and assume that simply because an item is not mentioned in that verse that it is nonessential. Just because "baptism" is not mentioned in Ephesians 2:8-9, it does not follow that baptism is not included in Jesus' presentation of the gospel. Confession, Repentance and love for God are not mentioned either - are these excluded as well? John clearly indicates Jesus' advocacy of baptism (John 3:22,26). You wrote, “1 Corinthians 1:21—“It pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe.” God saves those who believe! God would never fail to save someone who believes. My reply: Yes, however, God does NOT save anyone through FAITH ALONE… You wrote, “Luke 8:12—“Then cometh the devil, and taketh away the word out of their hearts, lest they should believe and be saved.” The devil knows God’s simple plan of salvation! He does not want people to BELIEVE AND BE SAVED! To foil the devil, the sinner simply needs to believe. If he does that, he will be saved! The devil’s strategy has always been to add certain requirements in order for man to somehow work for and earn God’s salvation. Here’s a simple test to prove this: Ask any member of a religious cult this simple question: “What must I do to be saved?” and then compare his answer with Paul’s answer found in Acts 16:31. You will find that the two answers are not the same! The cultist will invariably add at least one additional requirement. ” My reply: Repentance is also not mentioned in the passage! Repentance is a completely separate and different action than faith. You agree it is necessary. But by your reasoning, repentance is not necessary since it does not occur in Luke 8:12! Your view of "believe" cannot harmonize with the word "keep" in the same context (vs. 15). You wrote, “Hebrews 7:25—“Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him.” He saves all those who come to Him through Jesus Christ. In John 6:35 we learn that COMING TO GOD is synonymous with BELIEVING ON HIM. Thus, God saves to the uttermost all who believe (compare also John 6:37). ” My reply: When the Bible speaks approvingly of faith, it does not consist solely of this idea. The demons believe in Jesus (James 2:19). Even Satan acknowledges the deity and person of Christ. But saving faith includes whatever actions God specifies as part of that faith. Until one's faith in Jesus leads one to comply with divinely stated prerequisites, one cannot be saved. This principle is taught all over the Bible. Though the city of Jericho was a free gift from God (Josh. 6:2), the Israelites did not actually possess the city until they complied with no fewer than 15 acts of obedience (Josh. 6:3-6). Naaman had his leprosy removed from his body by the grace and free gift of God (2 Kings 5:15), but his cleansing was preceded by compliance with specific acts of faith (2 Kings 5:10,14). Jericho would not have been taken and Naaman would not have been healed if they had embraced the doctrine of "faith only." Hebrews 11 makes this point vividly. In every case, "faith" is defined in the context of the individual acting in accordance with divine instructions. Note, for example, the use of the term "after" (Heb. 11:30). When did the walls of Jericho fall down BY FAITH? AFTER (not before) they were encircled seven days! Many times the word "faith" is used in Scripture as the figure of speech known as synecdoche where it encompasses everything necessary to be saved - including baptism. For example, Acts 2:44; 4:4, 32; 5:14; 13:48; 16:34; 17:12; et al. It is so used in Romans (e.g., 1:16-17; 3:22, 25-28, 30-31; et al.). "The faith" is a synecdoche for the entire Christian system in Acts 6:7; 14:22; Jude 3; et al. You wrote, “John 3:16; John 3:36; John 5:24; John 6:47; John 11:25-26 and other passages clearly teach that those who believe on Christ HAVE eternal LIFE as a present possession (compare also 1 John 5:12). If a person has eternal life the moment he believes on Christ, then this person is saved. It’s unthinkable to speak of a person who has eternal life and yet who is unsaved! All those who receive Jesus Christ by faith have received God’s free gift of eternal life (Romans 6:23), and this free gift becomes theirs at the moment of faith, not at the moment of water baptism. ” My reply: The context of the book of John lies in its thematic statement in 20:30-31. John uses "believe" throughout the book to mean "give allegiance to Jesus as God." Accepting the deity of Christ and then obeying Him constitutes belief in the book of John. When Jesus does get specific and pinpoint the essentiality of baptism in the same chapter, they refuse to accept its clear import. "Water" in John 3:5 is an unmistakable reference to water baptism to which one must submit in order to get into Christ's kingdom. Parallel verses are 1 Cor. 12:13; Eph. 5:26; Tit. 3:5. The essentiality of baptism is also seen in John 3:22, 26. You wrote, “Acts 10:43—“To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission (forgiveness) of sins.” If a person believes on Christ and does not receive forgiveness of sins, then God is a liar! There is no such thing as a true believer whose sins are not forgiven. Those who refuse to believe on Christ will die in their sins (John 8:24), but those who believe in Him will not. Complete forgiveness of all my sins becomes a reality the moment I believe on Christ, not the moment I am baptized in water. If your sins have not been forgiven prior to being baptized in water, then you should not be baptized (because this would mean you are an unbeliever and hence unsaved). ” My reply: The Scriptures do not instruct us to 'only believe.' Faith alone is only mentioned to be condemned. Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ has a wide comprehensive meaning compared with that of the narrow, bewildering 'only believe.' The phrase, 'the moment you believe' conveys an idea that is NOT found in Scripture. Believing in Christ is never represented as a sudden change in man, it comes by the HEARING of the Word. We first hear the reasoned-out address, with proofs of the resurrection and the divinity of Christ, and the believing follows as a natural consequence. The Apostles, with many other words, testified and exhorted them. The Saviour DID NOT SAY we are saved the moment you believe. Even the thief on the cross did more than that, he openly confessed Christ. Faith makes the great changes within us, but baptism changes our state, takes us out of a state of condemnation into that of salvation. We bury the old life and rise to the new. (Romans 6:3-4). So says the apostle Paul, hear him. (1 John 4:6). You wrote, “ “Be it known unto you therefore, men and brethren, that through this man is preached unto you the forgiveness of sins: and by him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses” (Acts 13:38-39). All who believe are forgiven and justified from all things! In verse after verse we learn that FAITH is the one condition, the one requirement for salvation and for forgiveness. If you can find a true believer who is not justified from all things, then God would be a liar. God forbid! ” My reply: There is NO such thing as FAITH ONLY salvation. If one is saved by FAITH ONLY, that automatically rules out ANY bit of REPENTANCE, CONFESSION and BAPTISM, ALL of which are REQUIRED in order to be saved. Your FAITH ONLY doctrine PLAINLY ignores passages such as Acts 5:32, Acts 6:7, Romans 1:5, Romans 16:26, Romans 2:8, Galatians 3:10, 2 Thessalonians 1:8, 1 Peter 4:17, 1 Peter 3:1, Philippians 2:12, and Matthew 19:16-17. You wrote, “Romans 4:3 and 4:5. In Romans 4 we learn how Abraham was saved. Keep in mind that Abraham lived prior to the time of water baptism. In verse 3 we learn that “Abraham believed God and it was counted (imputed) unto him for righteousness.” At the moment Abraham believed, God’s righteousness was put to his account. At the moment of faith Abraham was justified. As we come to verse 5 we find that the very same thing happens to a person living today: “But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness” (Romans 4:5). If justification takes place at the point of water baptism, then Paul could have clarified this. He could have said something like this: “Even though Abraham received God’s righteousness at the moment he believe d, things are different in our day. Today a person does not receive God’s righteousness when he first believes, but he is justified only when he is baptized in water. There is no salvation, no justification, no forgiveness until the believing sinner takes this initial step of obedience and submits to water baptism.” But Paul says nothing of the sort. Paul consistently taught that those who believe are blessed just as Abraham was (Galatians 3:9). God’s Word teaches that “the righteousness of God . . . is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe” (Rom. 3:22).” No believer lacks God’s righteousness. Every believer has been justified. ” My reply: Abraham was NOT justified by FAITH ONLY. James 2:21-23 CLEARLY state that Abraham was NOT justified by faith UNTIL he OFFERED his son Isaac on the altar. And verse 24 CONFIRMS this fact that was stated in Romans chapter 4. You wrote, “In John 1:12-13 we learn that a person is born of God (is regenerated) and becomes a child of God when he receives Jesus Christ and believes on His Name. “But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: which were born (regenerated), not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God” (John 1:12-13). Nothing is here said about baptismal regeneration. It does not say that water brings about this new birth, but it does say that these wonderful things happen when a person believes on Him. ” My reply: If a person is saved by FAITH ONLY, he is saved before he becomes a child of God. Notice how John 1:12 says faith gives a person the “right to become a child of God.” Faith doesn’t make you a child of God. A person saved by faith only is saved before he turns to God (Note the distinction in faith and turning in Acts 11:21). Further, he is saved without having to confess Christ (Note John 12:42) and he is saved while being no better than the devil. (See James 2:10). Obedience is necessary to be saved. (See Romans 16:26). You wrote, “How does a person become adopted by the Father and entitled to all the privileges and benefits of being God’s son? “For ye are all the children [literally “sons”] of God by faith in Christ Jesus” (Galatians 3:26). Once again we see that simple faith in Christ is the key. ” My reply: The next verse Gal 3:27 tells us HOW one puts on Christ: “For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ.” One does NOT put on Christ until they are baptized INTO Christ… You wrote, “How is a person purified and made fit for God’s kingdom? “And put no difference between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith” (Acts 15:9). Notice that is does not say that their hearts were purified by faith and water baptism. Keep in mind that some people claim to believe in Christ when they really don’t believe in Him at all. They profess Him but they don’t actually possess Him (1 John 5:12). Some of these false professors (mere pretenders) are even baptized in water, but this does nothing to purify their hearts. Only true faith in Jesus Christ can do this. The person must have his heart purified by faith before he or she ever gets into the water, or else water baptism is nothing but a meaningless ritual. ” My reply: Notice that God said there is “no distinction between us (Jews) and them (Gentiles) in Acts 15:9… The Jews and Gentiles are saved in the same manner through obedience to the gospel of Christ… (See Romans 1:16)… Also compare Acts 2:38 with Ephesians 2:11-22 and 3:6… You wrote, “We have already seen that people are saved by faith and forgiven by faith and justified by faith and regenerated by faith, and in Acts 26:18 we learn that people are also SANCTIFIED (set apart unto God) by faith—“To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me” (Acts 26:18). In 1 Corinthians 6:11 we learn of those who are washed, justified and sanctified, and all of these blessings are conditioned on simple faith in Christ. It is impossible to find a true believer in Christ who is un-washed, un-justified and un-sanctified. Such a thought would be Biblically absurd! But according to those who believe in baptismal regeneration, t here is a period of time, albeit short, where a person is a believer in Christ and yet is not yet saved and not yet forgiven and not yet cleansed. In their view, this would be the time between when the person believed in Christ and when the person was baptized in water. Remember, no one is baptized immediately after putting faith in Christ. Some amount of time elapses between the two events, whether it be very short or long. ” My reply: What we have NOT seen is that salvation is through FAITH ALONE… I don’t believe in baptismal regeneration… Water is merely the substance that God designated to be the dividing line between the lost and saved. God frequently operated in just such a fashion throughout Bible history. For example, Naaman had to be immersed seven times before his leprosy was cleansed (2 Kings 5:14). The blind man was required by Jesus to have mud placed on his eyes and then to go to the pool of Siloam and wash it off to regain his eyesight (John 9:6-7). Here is the heart of error of Calvinism a nd "faith only." It insists that if humans have to do anything, then salvation is not by grace. But that conclusion is simply false! Neither Naaman nor the blind man felt their compliance with divinely stipulated acts constituted working for their salvation or in some way meriting the subsequent blessing. They understood that their healing was due totally to the grace and compassion of God. So it is with water baptism. You wrote, “Thought question: What happens if the person dies after he believes in Christ but before he is baptized in water? If this person is safe with God and among the redeemed, then it is very clear that it was not the water baptism that saved him. [The thief on the cross is often used as an example of this. Here was a man who trusted Jesus Christ and had no opportunity to be baptized in water (even though we recognize that Christian baptism did not begin historically until the Day of Pentecost, about 53 days later). If any additional requirements for salvation had been laid on this man, apart from simple faith in Christ, he would have been in trouble]. ” My reply: People who refuse to accept God's WORD, are always throwing this type of ridiculous hypothetical situation at us, "What if a person decides to be Baptized into Jesus but are then immediately killed by a speeding camel?" etc..., etc... Well can I ask you, What about the person who would have 'Prayed Jesus into their heart' but were tragically struck down and killed by that same speeding camel? What about them? Only the Scriptures prove doctrine (2 Tim. 3:16). The question has always been "What must I do..." The response has always biblically been baptism. Acts 4:12 gives us the only name under heaven by which we ma y be saved. Don't be fooled by a hypothetical doctrine, which CANNOT and DOES NOT accept the truth of God's WORD. You DO NOT believe God's WORD, Mark 16:16, (or any of the other passages that say that baptism is a requirement for salvation) but instead you perpetrate this LIE, as you defile the WORD of God and change it to say; " Whoever believes is saved, without being baptized because God is so merciful that He will allow them into paradise even though they didn't have a chance to Obey because they were killed prior to being baptized. But the God of the universe who says that His Word is PERFECT declares that; "Whoever believes and is baptized, WILL BE SAVED..." You wrote, “Salvation is the work of God from beginning to end, as summarized by 2 Thessalonians 2:13-14, “But we are bound to give thanks always to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth: whereunto he called you by our gospel, to the obtaining of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.” Faith is mentioned in this passage (“belief of the truth”) but there is no mention of water baptism. ” My reply: If the blood of Christ saves (and it does) then how do you say that blood is applied to our soul? Is it by faith only? Or is the blood of Christ applied to our soul when we OBEY Christ (See Hebrews 5:9) in being baptized INTO His death? (See Romans 6:3). The blood of Christ is said to be "for the remission of sins" (Matthew 26:28) and baptism is also said to be "for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38). You wrote, “Conclusion of this matter: In the book of Acts we have frequent examples of water baptism. As we study the book of Acts we learn that the order was always this: 1) First, the person heard the gospel and believed on Christ; 2) Then, the person was baptized. According to the Bible, a person is saved when he believes on Christ (Acts 16:31; 1 Cor. 1:21), and therefore those who were baptized in the book of Acts were already saved before they entered the water. ” My reply: Jesus said that one who believes AND is baptized WILL BE SAVED!!! The Samaritans who heard the gospel "believed" and "WERE BAPTIZED" (Acts 8:12). "And many of the Corinthians, hearing, believed and were BAPTIZED" (Acts 18:8). When Philip preached Jesus to the Ethiopian, he believed and was BAPTIZED (Acts 8:35-39). When the hearers on Pentecost believed in Jesus they asked what they should do. Peter told them to repent AND be BAPTIZED FOR the forgiveness of sins (Acts 2:36-38). The word of God shows that "faith only" FALLS SHORT of what God requires. Please note the following concerning what baptism does: - Baptism destroys the old man (Romans 6:3-4) - Baptism creates a new man (Romans 6:3-4) - Baptism washes away sin (Acts 22:16) - Baptism puts all into one body (1 Corinthians 12:13) - Baptism puts one into Christ (2 Corinthians 5:17) - Baptism allows one to be added to the church (Acts 2:40-47) - Baptism saves (1 Peter 3:21) As can clearly be seen, baptism creates a permanent change. Baptism IS necessary for salvation. What arrogance for man to think that he can change the requirements of God! You wrote, “Yes [name omitted], "I know whom I have believed, and am persuaded that he is able to keep that which I have commited unto him against that day" I believed on the Lord Jesus Christ and was saved immediately. After believing on the Lord Jesus Christ, I obeyed His command of baptism - but the baptism did not save me, placing my faith in Jesus Christ did..” My reply: When all men's arguments fall, the Bible's teaching on Baptism is still the same. Acts 2:38 still teaches Baptism is FOR the remission of sins, Acts 22:16 still teaches Baptism WASHES AWAY sins, Mark 16:16 still teaches "He who Believes AND is Baptized WILL BE SAVED". 1 Corinthians 12:13 still teaches that Baptism puts us INTO the body of Christ, Galatians 3:27 still teaches Baptism puts us INTO Christ, Romans 6:3-4 still teaches Baptism puts us INTO the DEATH of Christ, Colossians 2:12-13 still teaches that thru Baptism we obtain NEWNESS of life, 1 Peter 3:21 still teaches that Baptism SAVES us. The first time the gospel was preached, "then those who gladly received his word were Baptized (Acts 2:41). Here is some food for thought: Water is merely the substance that God designated to be the dividing line between the lost and saved. God frequently operated in just such a fashion throughout Bible history. For example, Naaman had to be immersed seven times before his leprosy was cleansed (2 Kings 5:14). According to your logic, he was healed by "river regeneration"! The blind man was required by Jesus to have mud placed on his eyes and then to go to the pool of Siloam and wash it off to regain his eyesight (John 9:6-7). Again, your doctrine requires them to call his healing "pool regeneration"! Here is the heart of error of Calvinism and "faith only." It insists that if humans have to do anything, then salvation is not by grace. But that con clusion is simply false! Neither Naaman nor the blind man felt their compliance with divinely stipulated acts constituted working for their salvation or in some way meriting the subsequent blessing. They understood that their healing was due totally to the grace and compassion of God. So it is with water baptism. Now let's consider the role that water baptism plays in the conversion process. We learn from many accounts of conversion in the New Testament that those who became disciples of Jesus were immersed in water. What significance was placed on this act? The Baptism of John the Baptist. Mark 1:4-5. The baptism of John was called a "baptism of repentance for the forgiveness of sins." Vs. 5 says that in their baptism the followers of John were "confessing their sins". It seems pretty clear that John's baptism had something to do with getting rid of one's sins. We also learn from Matt.21:24-25 and Lk. 7:30 that not being baptized b y John was considered to be the same thing as rejecting the message of John. As we will see, acceptance of the gospel was always closely linked with baptism. The Baptism of Jesus' Ministry. John 3:22-23. There would appear to have been no discernible difference between the baptism taught by Christ and that taught by John. John 4:1, Jesus simply picked up where John had begun and continued on even after John was later imprisoned and executed. Notice that in John 4:1 baptism is described as a function of "making disciples". One became a disciple of Jesus by receiving His baptism. If early in Christ's ministry baptism was connected with becoming of a disciple, then we should consider the later references to baptism to have this same significance. What Jesus Himself Said About Baptism. In Matt. 28:18-20 Jesus told His disciples to go and "make disciples, baptizing them in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit." The words "baptizing, etc." are in the form of a participial clause that modifies the command to "make disciples". In other words, the way that one makes a disciple is by baptizing the person in question. In a parallel account of this commission in Mark 16:15-16 Jesus says "He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved; but he who has disbelieved shall be condemned. "Clearly baptism is something one does in order to be saved. Some try to dismiss the clear import of this verse by making a distinction between belief and baptism, but the New Testament always ties these two things together. To believe a message that commands you to do something requires that you obey the command. The gospel tells us to be baptized in the name of Jesus. If one believes the gospel one is baptized. If one is not baptized he has not really believed the gospel. Examples From The Book Of Acts. In Acts 2:37-38 the people realize their lost condition and they cry out "What shall we do? "Peter answers by telling them to "Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins;". The people asked for a solution to their problem of sin and the one that Peter offers is repentance and baptism. Peter says that the repentance and baptism are "for the forgiveness of sins." Some try to separate repentance from baptism in this verse but there is no way to get around the grammatical fact that both are done for the same reason. If Peter had wanted to say that we are to get baptized in order to receive forgiveness, how else could he have said it more clearly? In verse 41 of this passage baptism is mentioned as the defining element by which those who had accepted Peter's message were distinguished. Acts 8:12-13. The Samaritans who became disciples followed the exact formula of Mark 16:16. Those that believed the message were baptized. What of those who were not baptized? Could it be said that there were some who believed Philip's message but who dec ided not to get baptized? No, baptism defined those who believed. Acts 8:35-39. Note that water baptism must be an important element of preaching Jesus; otherwise, how did the Eunuch know to request it? In fact, it was the one thing that the Eunuch saw as the significant requirement that he needed to meet. Only after the Eunuch was baptized was Philip's work done. Only after baptism could the Eunuch go on his way rejoicing. Acts 10:47-48. After Cornelius and his family had believed Peter's message about Christ, and after they had been filled with the Holy Spirit, the first thing that Peter could say was "We need to baptize these people in water." Why was Peter so fixated on water baptism? If believing alone saves you, then why the rush to get baptized? And why does Peter suggest that some might have refused to baptize them? If these people were already disciples by reason of their faith and their "Holy Spirit experience", then surely water baptism wouldn't mean anyt hing, would it? But if baptism in water was recognized as the act by which a person was made into a disciple and joined to the body of Christ, then certainly this would have upset some of the Jewish Christians who still saw the Gentiles as unclean. Acts 16:14-15. Lydia responded to the gospel. How did she respond? She was baptized. Baptism is an essential part of accepting the gospel. Until one has been baptized one has not fully responded. Acts 16:31-34. Here again we see the immediacy of the baptism. Why couldn't it wait until morning? Why couldn't Paul and Silas at least get something to eat first? Because one's conversion is not complete until one is baptized. Acts 18:8. Here again we have a concise illustration of Mark 16:16 in action. Those that believed were baptized. Believing and being baptized are part and parcel of the same thing, accepting the message of the gospel. Acts 19:1-5. Paul told these men that they needed to believe in Jesus. Does the t ext say, "and when they heard this they all cried, 'We believe in Jesus', and thus they were converted."? No. It says, "And when they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus." Now why do you suppose they were baptized when the thing Paul had told them to do was to believe in Jesus? Because it is through baptism that one expresses faith in Christ and acceptance of the gospel. It is simply folly to try to separate faith in the gospel from obedience to the call to be baptized. Consider also Acts 22:16. For Paul baptism was the act by which his sins were washed away. Baptism In the Epistles. In Rom. 6:3-5 Paul says that we are "baptized into Christ", that we are "buried with Him through baptism", and that by so doing we become "united with Him in the likeness of His death." Baptism connects us with the death of Christ and kills the old man of sin. Only after baptism can we rise up to walk in newness of life. 1 Cor. 12:13. The Corinthian bret hren may have had different backgrounds, and some may have had spiritual gifts while others did not, but they all had one thing in common. They were all baptized, and in their baptism they had all become part of the one body of Christ. Gal. 3:27. We are baptized into Christ and in baptism we clothe ourselves with Christ. Therefore, before baptism we are still spiritually naked and outside of Christ. Col. 1:11-13. Our transgressions, the uncircumcision of our flesh, is removed by God when we are buried with Christ in baptism. 1 Peter 3:20-21. Just as Noah and his family were brought to safety through water, our baptism in water saves us. It is not the physical cleansing action of the water that does this, but the fact that in baptism we make an appeal to God for a good conscience. It is in baptism that we obtain a good conscience from God. When we read passages like Matt. 28:16-20 in the New Testament that tell us we need to be baptized, we can be cer tain that what this means is that we need to be immersed in water in the name of Jesus. Until we have done so we have not obeyed the gospel. When we are immersed in water in the name of Jesus we accept the gospel of Christ, we are forgiven of our sins, we become disciples of Christ, we are joined to the body of Christ, and we are saved. This is the significance of water baptism in the New Testament. Acts 10:43 The reception of the Holy Spirit prior to water baptism by Cornelius had absolutely NOTHING to do with his salvation! Holy Spirit baptism was God's way of proving to the Jews that Gentiles were likewise fit candidates for salvation. The Gentile reception of the Holy Spirit not only preceded their baptism, it PRECEDED their belief! For in Acts 11:15, Luke used very precise language when he stated, "And as I began to speak…" Peter was just beginning to preach the words which would tell them what to do to be saved but was interrupted by God baptizing the Gentiles in the Spirit. So at that point they had NOT YET HEARD the "words by which you and all your household will be saved" (11:14). They had NOT YET BELIEVED since faith comes by hearing God's words (Rom. 10:17). God had to put His stamp of approval upon Gentiles to demonstrate to the Jewish church that Gentiles had a right to hear the gospel as well. Only after He did this could the Gentiles then proceed to hear the gospel and become Christians by responding with faith and baptism. Notice that this text actually verifies the necessity of water baptism to the conversion event. After having divinely demonstrated Gentile eligibility for salvation, Peter asks a question that has the import of asking whether anyone can offer any reason why Gentiles should not be allowed to become Christians: "Can anyone forbid water, that these should not be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?" (Acts10:47). If t he doctrine of "faith only" is correct, Peter should have asked, "Can anyone give any reason why these Gentiles should not be allowed to believe (or accept Jesus as their savior)?" Instead, Peter was pinpointing the exact moment a person becomes a Christian! He was saying that God's direct authentication of Gentile eligibility through Holy Spirit baptism was sufficient proof that Gentiles should be allowed to become converts. So - "bring on the water" - a command (Acts10:48)! If the Gentiles were already Christians, why would Peter bring to a head the Gentile eligibility issue in terms of water baptism? Everything prior to that point was driving toward the conclusion that Gentiles could become Christians and enter the church just as Jews could. That fact had to be proven before the Gentiles actually were permitted to become Christians. Notice that the proof came after their belief but before their baptism - proof positive that water baptism precedes salvation! < BR> Acts 2:38 If a person is saved by faith alone, then when the people cried out, "Men and brethren, what shall we do?" Peter should have said something to the effect, "DO? There's nothing for you to DO! Salvation is by faith only. You are now obviously believers in Jesus due to the fact that you have been convinced of what I have preached about Him ('pricked in their hearts'). Now that you are saved, it would be good for you to perform the signs of belief as outward signs of an inward grace, i.e., be baptized." But that is not even close to what Peter actually required of them. Though they became believers when they heard the sermon (Rom. 10:17), Peter indicated they still lacked repentance (i.e., a change of mind regarding their past sin and views) as well as water baptism INTO the remission of sins. Why even refer to remission of sins if they had already received remission of sins? It is pure fantasy to suggest that the refere nce to remission of sins was some sort of post-salvation, external symbolism. The Scriptures nowhere refer to such a notion. Contextually, baptism is clearly prerequisite to salvation, not only because Peter explicitly says it is("for the remission of sins"), but because Luke tells us that "they that gladly received his word were baptized" (vs. 41). What word? The previous verse says, "Be saved from this perverse generation" (vs. 40). So the way to receive gladly the exhortation to be saved is to be baptized! Galatians 3:27 We are baptized into Christ and in baptism we clothe ourselves with Christ. Therefore, before baptism we are still spiritually naked and outside of Christ. Ephesians 4:5 states that there is only "One Baptism". John 3:5 I believe it is profitable to note the comments of several prominent Greek scholars regarding the proper translation of John 3:5. Many of these men served on the translation committees of the Bibles we use today. Though I do not like the way some of these men expressed themselves, they all point out the two elements of the new birth: water and Spirit. Henry Alford: "There can be no doubt, on any honest interpretation of the words, that 'born of water' refers to the token or outward sign of baptism 'born of spirit' to the thing signified, or inward grace of the Holy Spirit. All attempts to get rid of these two plain facts have sprung from doctrinal prejudices, by which the views of expositors have been warped. Such we have in Calvin." (Alford's Greek Testament, Vol. 1,p. 714). W. Robertson Nicoll: "To remove as far as possible the difficulty of Nicodemas as to the how of the new birth our Lord declares that the two great factors in it are 'water' and 'spirit.'" (Expositors Greek Testament, Vol. I, p. 713). Marvin R. Vincent: "The exposition of this much controverted passage does not fall within the scope of this work. We may observe, 1.That Jesu s here lays down the preliminary conditions of entrance into His kingdom, expanding and explaining His statement in ver. 3. 2. That this condition is here stated as complete, including two distinct factors, water and the Spirit. 3. That the former of these two factors is not to be merged in the latter; that the spiritual element is not to exclude or obliterate the external and ritual element. We are not to understand with Calvin, the Holy Spirit as the purifying water in the spiritual sense: 'water which is the Spirit.' 4. That water points definitely to the rite of baptism, and with a twofold reference to the past and to the future." (Word Studies In The New Testament, Vol. 2, p. 91). B. F. Westcott: "It can, then, scarcely be questioned that as Nicodemus heard the words, water carried with it a reference to John's baptism, which was a divinely appointed rite (i.33), gathering up into itself and investing with a new importance all the lustral baptisms of the Jews." (The Gos pel According To John, p. 50). A. T. Robertson: "We are puzzled by the placing of 'water' here before 'Spirit' as a necessity to entering the Kingdom of God. But Nicodemas was troubled about 'Spirit.' He was thinking only of the physical birth. On the whole it is probable that by 'water' Jesus refers to baptism. John the Baptist preached repentance and practiced the baptism of those who confessed their sins." (Minor Characters In The New Testament, p. 6). H. A. W. Meyer: "water, inasmuch as the man is baptized therewith (1 John v. 7, 8; Eph. v. 26) for the forgiveness of sins (Acts ii.33, xxii.16; 2 Cor. vi. 11), and spirit, inasmuch as the Holy Ghost is given to the person baptized in order to his spiritual renewal and sanctification"(Critical And Exegetical Hand-Book To The Gospel Of John, p. 123). What Is The "Spirit"? What role does the Spirit have in the new birth? God used the agency of the Holy Spirit to reveal His Word unto man. "Prophecy never c ame by the will of man, but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Spirit"(2 Peter 1:21). Paul goes into great detail in 1 Corinthians 2:7-13 to explain how the Spirit revealed the message of God unto the apostles. When Jesus commands us to be "born of water and of the Spirit," He has reference to the waters of baptism joined with our obedience to the Spirit revealed word. This passage is much easier to understand in the light of a few other passages. Ephesians 5:26 says Christ died for the church "that he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word." Here the "washing of water" has reference to baptism. The phrase "by the word" has to refer to the word revealed by the Spirit. In Titus 3:5 we find that salvation is "not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost." Another parallel is found in1 Corinthians 12:13, "for by one Spirit we are all baptized into one body." Both water (baptism) and Spirit are found here. In John 3:5 they are said to be necessary to "enter the kingdom of God." Paul told the Corinthians these same elements would put us into the "one body. "This body is the church (Col. 1:18). James sums up the whole discussion in James 1:18 by reminding us that "of His own will begat he us with the word of truth." Since being "born of water and of the Spirit" is required before we can enter the kingdom of God, it would behoove us to make certain we have obeyed this command of the Lord. Acts 22:16 Here are the grammatical features of the verse: anastas is an aorist active participle: "having arisen" or "rising" baptisai is an aorist middle imperative verb: "get yourself baptized" apolousai is also an aorist middle imperative verb: "get your sins washed away" epikalesamenos is an aorist middle participle: "you will hav e been calling" An adverbial participle is a participle that is used as an adverb to modify the verb. "Calling" is an adverbial participle of manner. It shows the manner in which the main verbs are accomplished. The verbs ("baptized" and "wash away sins") - joined by the coordinate conjunction "and" (kai) - are "causative middles" in the aorist tense and so relate to the aorist middle of the participle that follows ("calling"). Hence, a literal (though awkward) translation would be: "Having arisen, get yourself baptized and get your sins washed away and you will have been calling on the name of the Lord." In other words, Ananias was telling Paul that the way to accomplish "calling on the Lord" was to be baptized and have his sins washed away. To "call" upon the Lord is used throughout Scripture as a euphemism or idiomatic expression to mean accept God by complying with His commands. (To call upon the "name" of the Lord refers to submitt ing to His authority.) In any given context, the commands to which one must submit vary. Read carefully the following verses where the literal sense of opening one's mouth and audibly calling on the Lord cannot be intended: (Gen. 4:26; Ps. 145:18; Is. 55:6-7; Acts 9:14, 21;Rom. 10:12-14; 1 Cor. 1:2; 2 Tim. 2:22). It is simply a generic expression similar to "name the name of Christ" (2 Tim. 2:19) or "follow Jesus" (Matt. 8:22; Mark 8:34). In the case of initial conversion, water baptism and washing away one's sins constitutes "calling on the name of the Lord." Notice that the connection between baptism and the "name of the Lord" was made by Peter also in Acts 2:38. A person has not "called on the name of the Lord" until and unless he/she is baptized in water. Mark 16:16 I continue to marvel at the hermeneutical gymnastics and tortured logic to which one must resort in order to extricate the essentiality of baptism from this verse while re taining the essentiality of belief. They stand or fall together. The verse plainly teaches that one must be baptized or he will be lost. If belief precedes salvation, so does baptism - according to this verse. An unbiased, honest, simple understanding of the grammatical construction of the verse proves that baptism and faith are equally essential to salvation. "Believes" and "is baptized" are aorist participles. Participles indicate action in relation to the action of the main verb. Aorist participles indicate action that occurs antecedent to the action of the leading verb. The leading verb is "shall be saved." Hence, both belief and baptism precede salvation. Mark 16:16 represents a complex declarative sentence with "He shall be saved" as the principle sentence. The phrase, "He who believes and is baptized" is the complex subject. The restrictive clause which describes the man who shall be saved is "who be lieves and is baptized." The "he" is the simple subject modified by the restrictive clause, which is a simple adjective element of the third class, with "that" the relative (or conjunctive) pronoun. "Shall be saved" is the simple predicate unmodified. Notice that the "he" who shall be saved is the "he" who believes and is baptized. Both qualifiers are joined together by the copulative with the same end in view. The coordinate conjunction "and" always connects things of equal rank and value. Hence, both faith and baptism are essential to being saved. The reason the second clause mentions only disbelieving and omits baptism is because if a person refuses to believe, he obviously would not be interested in being baptized. He who disbelieves is condemned already (John 3:18). Failure to comply with just one of the two prerequisites is sufficient for a person to be lost. An equivalent statement would be: "He who consumes food and digest i t shall be nourished. He who does not consume food shall die." Both consumption of food and proper digestion are necessary to survive. But failing to consume food is sufficient for a person to die. You are pitting yourself against Jesus Christ. Consider the following chart: BELIEF + BAPTISM = SALVATION -- Jesus. BELIEF = SALVATION + BAPTISM -- Faith only doctrine. If the doctrine of "faith only" were not at stake and people were not already biased against a simple reading of the Bible, the role of baptism would have been accepted without question. For example, if Mark 16:16 said, "He w ho believes and is baptized shall receive one million dollars. He who disbelieves shall go to jail," people would be falling all over themselves to be baptized! We find verses in the New Testament where only "faith" is mentioned. We find verses in the New Testament where only "repentance" is mentioned (Luke 13:3; Acts 11:18; 17:30). We find verses in the New Testament where only "confession" is mentioned (Matt. 10:32; 1 John 4:15). We find verses in the New Testament where only baptism is mentioned (Acts 22:16; Rom. 6:3-4; Gal. 3:27; 1 Pet.3:21). You latch onto the verses that mention faith and then dismiss the rest or redefine words or apply them subsequent to salvation. Why not just follow standard hermeneutical procedure and conclude the obvious? To be saved and come in contact with the blood of Christ, one must believe in Christ, repent of sins, confess the deity of Christ with the mouth, and be immersed in water. This conclusion allows Scr ipture to harmonize with itself easily. We do not differ in that you believe salvation is by faith and I believe salvation is by baptism. You believe that salvation is by faith "alone." I believe that salvation is by faith, repentance, confession and baptism. You cannot find one verse in all the Bible that says, "You are saved by faith alone." You cannot find one verse in all the Bible that says, "Jesus stands at the door of your heart. Simply invite Him in and accept Him as your personal Savior." You cannot find one verse in the Bible that says, "Salvation is a simple act of the will; all you have to do is believe." Yet in every verse in the New Testament where baptism and salvation are mentioned together, in every single case baptism precedes salvation: Mark 1:4; 16:16; Luke 3:3; Acts 2:38;22:16; 1 Peter 3:21. 1 Peter 3:20,21 Peter is certainly saying that the application of physical water to the body to remove dirt has no clean sing power. But it does not follow that water baptism has no connection to salvation. Peter would not bring up the subject of water baptism if it was not germane to the salvation question. We agree that "it is not the physical act that saves." However, why can't you see that the same may be said of "faith"? It is not the physical act of believing that saves! It is Christ's blood! No one is saying water cleanses. Water is not the "what" of salvation it is the "when." The Jordan River water did not cleanse Naaman but contact with the water was when God cleansed him. The spit, mud and pool of Siloam water did not give sight to the blind man but contact with the water was when Jesus healed him. (Notice also that both Naaman and the blind man possessed faith prior to their contact with water, but they were not healed at the point of faith only!) Again, we agree that "no physical act or agent can save the soul." Th at proves that even faith (the physical/mental act of believing) cannot save. You can't have it both ways. You want to say baptism has nothing to do with salvation since it is an act performed by the person and we are saved by grace alone. But then they want to turn around and say, "but a person does have to believe!" So there is something that a person can and must do to be saved! That means there's no difference between what you teach and what we teach from the Bible as to whether salvation is by grace, i.e., "the atoning death of the sinless son of God." We both agree that it is. There's no difference between you and I as to whether salvation is by faith. We both agree that it is. We both agree that there is something a person must do he/she must believe. Since we both agree that there is something that a person must do, the only difference between You and I is whether believing is all a person must do. You say "believe only." Jesus said, "Believe and be baptized"(Mark 16:16). I agree with Jesus. Romans 6:3-5 In Rom. 6:3-5 Paul says that we are "baptized into Christ", that we are "buried with Him through baptism", and that by so doing we become "united with Him in the likeness of His death." Baptism connects us with the death of Christ and kills the old man of sin. Only after baptism can we rise up to walk in newness of life. For Christ and those who love the truth in Him, [name omitted]
KJV Scriptures Used
Read each passage in its chapter and compare the Scriptures together.