Children of God through faith and baptism in Galatians3
Claim examined: Baptism and conversion
Scriptural Answer
Part 1 of 2. Please NOTE: Groups that teach that one is saved by "faith only" have NO verses to back up this unbiblical claim that state that one is saved by "faith only". On the contrary though, there is ONE verse in the word of God that DEFEATS this FALSE DOCTRINE, but since this is a thread on the book of Acts, I will have to save it until later. David wrote, "If the meaning of Acts 2:38 is un-clear too you, you can always re-punctuate the verse. "Repent, and let each one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, for the remission of sins" or "Repent for the remission of sins, and let each one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ." David would like to repunctuate this verse because he does NOT like what it says. The verse CLEARLY says that one must REPENT, and one must be BAPTIZED. There is NO MENTION of FAITH as a requirement in this verse for one to be saved. Please also note that it is BAPTISM that is said to be FOR THE REMISSION OF SINS. David wrote, "This does not contradict God's Word because it perfectly agrees with what God said. (Acts 10)" Of course it does NOT contradict God's word, because God PLAINLY said that one must HEAR, BELIEVE, REPENT, CONFESS, and be BAPTIZED FOR THE REMISSION OF SINS. Baptism FOR the remission of sins is EXACTLY what Acts 2:38 states. Please note that it is REPENTANCE AND REMISSION of SINS (BAPTISM) that is preached and this is the fulfillment of Jesus earlier prophecy. David wrote, "Acts 22:16 - Re-punctuated "Rise, have yourself baptized, and allow your sins to be washed away by calling on the name of the Lord." Acts 22:16 - NKJV "And now why are you waiting? Arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord." This verse ALSO TEACHES that one MUST BE BAPTIZED for it is in BAPTISM that one has their sins WASHED AWAY. That is how one CALLS ON THE NAME OF THE LORD, by BEING BAPTIZED FOR the REMISSION OF SINS. I wrote,"Very well David, you still continue to DENY that baptism is essential to salvation as evidenced by your DENIAL to make any sort of link between what Jesus prophesied in Luke 24:47 and Acts 2:38 for when you MAKE THIS CONNECTION, you will SEE that BAPTISM is FOR the REMISSION OF SIN" To which David replied: "I do believe the Luke 24:49 prophecy was fulfilled. Not only in Acts 2:38, but in all of Acts 2. But your statement that,"baptism if FOR the remission of sin" is incorrect. Belief grants remission of sins (Acts 10:43). I believe that baptism is essential to one's obedience (Acts 6:7), but it still DOES NOT remit sins." My reply: The prophecy was in Luke 24:47 and my statement that,"baptism if FOR the remission of sin" is CORRECT for that is EXACTLY what Acts 2:38 says. Please notice dear readers how David wants to CHANGE Acts 2:38 to fit his FALSE DOCTRINE that says that one is saved by "faith only". David wants Acts 2:38 to say, "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins;?" Luke 24:47 stated that REPENTANCE and REMISSION OF SINS would FIRST be PREACHED beginning at Jerusalem and that is EXACTLY what Peter taught. Peter said REPENT and be BAPTIZED (please notice this next word) FOR the remission of sins which is PROOF that BAPTISM is FOR the remission of sins. God says that baptism is FOR the remission of sins. David says that baptism is NOT for the remission of sins. Who are you going to believe??? David wrote, "The denomination of Church of Christ makes the same claims as the Roman Catholic Church and the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints (Mormon). They also do not view their organizations/churches as "denominations" (All three claim to also be biblically correct and either the "One True Church" or the "Restored Church"). Well, I do not want to confuse the readers, so I will refer to the Church of Christ - [name omitted]'s denomination, as plainly that; a Denomination. Also, all three of these organization hold the same unbiblical water dogma of baptismal regeneration. If you feel your church is not a denomination, ok; That's YOUR OPINION. I will always refer to earthly churches as denominations/organizations, no matter who claims I'm wrong in doing so (and ESPECIALLY if they hold an unbiblical doctrine like baptismal regeneration). I will only refer to the Church of Jesus Christ, the spiritual one (body of true believers) as just that; the Church of Jesus Christ. Please notice dear readers that I asked David to PROVE that the church of Christ is a DENOMINATION, and this he did NOT do in his reply above. Please NOTICE that NOT ONCE does David make any sort of ATTEMPT to PROVE that the church of Christ is a denomination, and he could NOT prove this to be true if his life depended on it!!! No it is NOT my OPINION that the church of Christ is NOT a denomination, it is the TRUTH!!! I have told you NUMEROUS TIMES David that I do NOT believe in BAPTISMAL REGENERATION like the Catholic Church. There are NO magical properties in baptism, the watery grave of baptism just happens to be where God CHOSE to place the blood of Jesus Christ. Only those who are BAPTIZED in OBEDIENCE to the gospel of Christ have their sins WASHED AWAY in His blood. Until David can PROVE that the church of Christ is a denomination, then he really does NOT know what he is talking about. Like MOST false teachers, he is good at making ACCUSATIONS, but he does LITTLE in the way of PROVING these FALSE STATEMENTS. I wrote, "The New Testament makes it quite clear that it is the act of water baptism that changes one from being a lost sinner to being a saved child of God." To which David replied: "Although this statement is not found in the book of Acts, it clearly refutes your "water baptism makes one a child of God"statement (which by the way, is off topic): Galatians 3:23-29 "But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster. For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus. For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus. And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise." [water baptism IS NOT mentioned about becoming a child of God]" My reply: I did NOT say this statement was in the book of Acts. Galatians 3:26 says that we are all sons of God THROUGH faith in Christ Jesus. The very NEXT verse (Gal 3:27) states EXACTLY how one can become a son of God for He SPECIFICALLY said, FOR as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ." Please notice that those who are BAPTIZED INTO CHRIST (baptized IN WATER which is FOR the remission of sins) have PUT ON CHRIST. Water baptism IS MENTIONED for one CANNOT "put on Christ" UNTIL they have been BAPTIZED INTO CHRIST. There is NO MENTION of one BELIEVING INTO CHRIST. It is in BAPTISM that one PUTS ON CHRIST. David wrote, "Does baptism still remit sins? No! Our faith does (Acts 10:43)" David CONTINUES to say that "faith only" saves, but if this were the case, there would have been NO need to have "the word of the Lord" spoken to the Philippian Jailer in Acts 16:32 and there also would have been NO need for Peter to tell Cornelius and his household "words by which you and all your household will be saved." (Acts 11:14). Faith is NOT the ENDING point of salvation as David and those in denominations teach, but it is the BEGINNING point on the road to salvation. I wrote, [name omitted] said,"Yet, David OBJECTS to this teaching. He INSISTS that we become saved and forgiven at the point that we have FAITH in Christ, and that water baptism is either unnecessary or not essential for salvation." To which David replied: "Of course I object your teaching; Your teaching is NOT biblical. Are you telling me that we are not forgiven of our sins when we believe? Is that not what Acts 10:43 tells us? Those who believe receive remission of sins! That is clearly what I read. You must either be ignoring the text, or not reading the bible at all. Also, Water Baptism is only necessary for obedience(acts 6:7), but DOES NOT remit sins because belief does (acts 10:43, acts 15:9, acts 13:38-39, etc)" My reply: If one is saved by "faith only", there would be NO NEED for Peter or any other apostle to have to give anyone WORDS by which one must hear and DO in order to be saved. Baptism is CLEARLY for the remission of sins and that is EXACTLY what I read in Acts 2:38. Acts 10:43 does NOT say that one has their sins forgiven when they believe for this verse states that it is "THROUGH HIS NAME, whoever believes in Him will receive remission of sins." This verse does NOT teach that one is saved by "faith only" as you have ERRONEOUSLY been led to believe for this verse teaches NO SUCH THING. You must be IGNORING the text or not reading your bible at all!!! There is NO connection between "faith only" and the "blood of Jesus Christ". There IS a CONNECTION between the "blood of Christ" and "baptism" and this has been pointed out to you and you continue to REJECT what God has CLEARLY revealed in His word. WHERE is it mentioned that "Water Baptism is only necessary for obedience" David??? Where is it mentioned that REPENTANCE is ONLY necessary for obedience David??? Where is it mentioned that CONFESSION is ONLY necessary for obedience David??? The Holy Spirit was given to Cornelius and his household in Acts 10:44 before they were BAPTIZED because God did this in order to PROVE to the Jews that the Gentiles were also able to be saved in the same way as the Jews. This is CONFIRMED in Acts 15:8 which states, "So God, who knows the heart, ACKNOWLEDGED THEM by giving them the Holy Spirit, just as He did to us," NOT once will you EVER find in the word of God ANYONE who was given the Holy Spirit UNTIL the Apostles LAID THEIR HANDS ON THEM after the baptism of Cornelius and his household. David wrote, "Every believer was baptized in obedience (Acts 6:7) because they were forgiven of there sins (acts 2:38). Unsaved people do not get baptized, nor does baptism make someone a believer. Always a believers' baptism (Acts 2:41; 8:12,35-38; 9:18; 10:44-48; 18:8; 19:1-7) in obedience (acts 6:7) to Christ's command ." Yes, every believer is baptized in obedience to Christ's command FOR the remission of their sins. Those on the day of Pentecost KNEW this to be TRUE for those who GLADLY RECEIVED Peter's words were baptized FOR the remission of their sins. Ananias also KNEW this to be TRUE for he COMMANDED Saul to "arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins?" (Acts 22:16). There is NO need to be baptized according to David's logic for he claims that one is saved by "faith only". If one is saved by "faith only", then there is NO NEED for one to REPENT of their sins, there is also NO NEED for one to CONFESS THEIR FAITH IN THE GOSPEL, and there is also NO NEED for one to be BAPTIZED FOR THE REMISSION OF THEIR SINS for according to David, one ALREADY has their sins WASHED AWAY when they believe. One CANNOT become a child of God without BELIEF. One CANNOT become a child of God without REPENTANCE. One CANNOT become a child of God without CONFESSION. One CANNOT become a child of God without BAPTISM. I wrote, "It is NOT a "collection of verses" that PROVES a doctrine, it is what the ENTIRE New Testament TEACHES concerning a specific doctrine on whether it is the TRUTH or it is to be REJECTED." To which David replied: "Well then, you should be able to prove it by only using one book of the bible (aka: in context ). If the ENTIRE New Testament does teach your water dogma, then you should have no problem teaching it out of only one book because ALL the New Testament should teach it right? I believe you'll have much a harder time trying to prove (in context) your water dogma (which comes from the Roman Catholic church) from the book of John (which its sole purpose was evangelistic) or the book of Romans." Please notice dear readers how David makes an ATTEMPT to LIMIT me by stating that I can ONLY use "one book of the bible (aka: in context )." in order to prove my doctrine. All false teachers follow a familiar pattern. First they beguile and deceive. Then they use subtlety or craftiness. Finally they corrupt the mind from simplicity to error which is EXACTLY what David is doing in order to confuse those who want to be saved. Actually, baptism in water FOR the remission of sins does NOT come from the Roman Catholic Church as David FALSELY ASSERTS, it comes from God!!! It will be NO PROBLEM teaching that one MUST be baptized in order to be saved from the book of John for John 3:5 states that there are TWO conditions that one MUST meet in order to enter the kingdom of God and one of them is "being born of WATER" which is BAPTISM in water FOR the remission of sins. I wrote, "No, it would not be sufficient and I don't think there are too many Bibles out there with ONLY the book of Matthew." To which David replied: "Why wouldn't it be sufficient? You believe that the ENTIRE New Testament teaches your water dogma, so why wouldn't the book of Matthew teach it too? Was Matthew wrong in leaving out something so important for salvation? Anyways, We have it easy thanks to the early church collecting and compiling the Apostles teachings. The Apostles DID NOT sit down, write the bible in one sitting, and shipped it out to people. Their teachings were sent in letters to believers, and I believe that even in their letter form, they did contain sufficient material to give them the knowledge of salvation." My reply: The book of Matthew DOES teach that one must BELIEVE, that one must REPENT, that one must CONFESS, and that one must be BAPTIZED however, one CANNOT "GROW in the grace and knowledge of our Lord Jesus Christ" (2 Peter 3:18) because they do NOT have any other books of the bible that tell them HOW they are to do this. If Matthew was the ONLY book required for one to be saved, then there would have been NO need for the other books that were written by God to the church. David wrote, "Acts 10:43,"To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive REMISSION OF SINS" [emphasis mine, d.o.] You keep assuming at what I said. I did not even mention salvation in this quote. I said remission of sins is obtained by believing, exactly what the Text says. God's Word does not contradict itself, and I do not see the word "baptism" in that passage. Therefore, with such a clear passage, we must harmonize other passages that seem "confusing" in order to find their clear meanings. Scripture interprets Scripture. The book of James (which seems to imply we are saved by works) and Ephesians says we are saved by grace through faith and not by works. The book of Ephesians is much clearer in meaning, so that helps us understand James better. We know that James wasn't teaching salvation by works, but about the evidence of salvation. Cults ignore this, and teach salvation by works and often misquote James. Anyways, two things cannot both remit sins. So we must harmonize those passages which seem unclear. When we believe, according to Acts 10:43, we receive remission of sins, and according to Acts 2:38, we are baptized (in obedience, acts 6:7) because of the remission of sins. Nothing contrary here. You teach a doctrine that says baptism remits sins, which is straight out CONTRARY to Acts 10:43, Acts 16:30, Acts 11:15-17, and Acts 15:9-11." Acts 2:38 says: "Repent, and let every one of you be BAPTIZED in the name of Jesus Christ FOR the remission of sins;?" There is NO mention of BELIEF in this passage now is there David??? Don't you think that in the FIRST gospel sermon that Peter would have mentioned FAITH as the ONLY requirement for salvation??? As a matter of FACT, faith is NOT even mentioned as a requirement for one to be saved and yet you move down to Acts 10:43 which is several YEARS later and say that salvation is obtained by BELIEVING. Baptism IS mentioned later and as I told you earlier, the household of Cornelius received the Holy Spirit BEFORE they were baptized ONLY to PROVE to the Jews that they (the Gentiles) were able to be granted "REPENTANCE TO LIFE" (Acts 11:18) just as the Jews were in Acts 2:38. If baptism were NOT a requirement for one to be saved, then Peter would NOT have said in Acts 10:47, "CAN ANYONE FORBID WATER, that THESE SHOULD NOT BE BAPTIZED WHO HAVE RECEIVED THE HOLY SPIRIT JUST AS WE HAVE?" It is interesting that the baptism of John the Baptist which was in water and was FOR the remission of sins please tell me David what has changed since then??? Jesus was baptized IN WATER, this was NOT for the remission of sins, but we ARE to FOLLOW HIS EXAMPLE. Dear readers please notice that David ONCE AGAIN uses his pen not to strike out a verse, or a word in the Bible, but this time he ADDS to the word of God. Notice that he said, "we are baptized (in obedience, acts 6:7) because of the remission of sins." Please notice that he ADDED the words "because of" before the words "remission of sins". These words CANNOT be found in the word of God and this is something that David has ADDED in order to prop up his FALSE DOCTRINE that one can be saved by "faith only". This "because of" remission of sins is NOT found in the Bible however the words that baptism is "FOR" the remission of sins are CLEARLY found in several passages. David CANNOT "gladly receive" Peter's inspired words. And David most certainly would never be found repeating them to an audience that cried out, "Men and brethren what shall we do?" For his words would be, "you cannot do anything but BELIEVE for it is "FAITH ONLY" that saves." This is David's gospel. This is NOT the gospel of Christ. In all 8 accounts of salvation recorded in the book of Acts the people heard (were taught) the word of God before being baptized. In 6 of the conversion accounts the people believed (had faith) before being baptized. In one of the conversion accounts the people repented before being baptized. In one of the conversion accounts the people confessed Jesus to be the Son of God before being baptized. In all 8 accounts the people were baptized. It is interesting that two things which are specifically recorded in all 8 conversion accounts are Hearing the word and Baptism. Why do you think this is the case? First, the conversion process does not begin until one hears (is taught) the word of God (Romans 10:17). Subsequently, one will either believe, or disbelieve. Those who believe will repent of past sins in obedience to God, will confess Jesus to be the Son of God, and will be baptized INTO Christ FOR the remission of sins. Second, the conversion process is complete with baptism. Baptism is recorded in each account to show the completion of the people's conversion to Christ. For example, notice the Ethiopian eunuch. The conversion process began when Philip began to preach from Isaiah. But, when did he rejoice - after Philip began to preach, after believing in Jesus, or after confessing Christ? He rejoiced after being baptized since he had nothing in which to rejoice until after being baptized (Acts 8:25-29). So, we must either stand by the Bible or the doctrines of men. The Bible teaches that one who has heard the word, believes, repents and confesses Jesus to be the Son of God may be baptized into Christ and is therefore saved. I wrote, "If there is NO difference between the Jews and the Gentiles in Acts 15:9 (Note: there is NO contradiction in the word of God), then the Ethiopian Eunuch in Acts 8:26-39, would NOT have stopped his chariot and said "see here is WATER. What HINDERS me from being BAPTIZED?" when Philip ONLY PREACHED JESUS TO HIM. If David would have been preaching the Eunuch would NOT have made this statement because David does NOT preach Jesus. David teaches a FALSE GOSPEL that does NOT include being baptized FOR the remission of sin. To which David replied: "Of course, "faith without works is dead". The Eunuch was obeying (acts 6:7) Christ's first command (true faith will result in obedience). I teach that one is baptized (in obedience, acts 6:7) because of (for, acts 2:38) the remission of sin (which is obtained by believing, Acts 10:43). Example 1: We praise a women FOR her beauty. We praise her BECAUSE OF her beauty, not so she can obtain it. Example 2: I take an advil FOR my headache. It is just non-sense to say that I took an advil "in order to obtain" my headache. I took it BECAUSE OF my headache." My reply: First you say that one is saved by "faith only" in other words one is saved by: FAITH WITHOUT WORKS, then you say that "Of course, "faith without works is dead". If one is saved WITHOUT WORKS, then they are NOT saved for the apostle James (you are off topic here) states that FAITH WITHOUT WORKS IS DEAD. The apostle James said, "faith without works is dead." David says, "one is saved by faith ONLY then they do works BECAUSE they are ALREADY SAVED." The apostle Peter said, "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ FOR the remission of sins;" David says, "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ BECAUSE OF the remission of sins;" David wrote, "The Ethiopian Eunuch Acts 8:30 - the Eunuch was reading God's Word and Philip asks,"Understandest thou what thou readest?" How can I, except some man guide me" Philip preached Christ to him, and the Eunuch believed the Gospel and later they pass some water. Acts 8:36 - The Eunuch asks,"see, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized? Acts 8:37 - Philip replies,"If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest." [why would Philip ask him that?] Acts 8:37, The Eunuch replies,"I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God. After the Eunuch shows saving faith Philip baptized him. The Eunuch was only baptized in obedience (acts 6:7) to Christ. Philip did not show any signs of wanting to baptize him; The Eunuch said it himself he wanted to be baptized. If baptism were necessary for salvation, why didn't Philip TELL him to be baptized?" If Philip did NOT preach BAPTISM FOR THE REMISSION OF SINS then please tell me how the Eunuch was able to say, "See, here is water. What hinders me from being baptized?" HELLO????? Did the Eunuch just pull this little bit of information from THIN AIR, or did Philip when he PREACHED JESUS to him tell him that he must be baptized FOR the remission of his sins??? Philip asked the Eunuch that he could ONLY be baptized if he "BELIEVE WITH ALL YOUR HEART, YOU MAY". If Philip had NO intention of baptizing the Eunuch, he would NOT have made this statement now would he??? HELLO??? If baptism was NOT necessary for salvation, then the Eunuch would NEVER had made the statement about wanting to be baptized in water at all!!! David wrote, "Also, The fact that New Testament believers baptized after they were saved does NOT prove that baptism is necessary for salvation. Baptism is a Christians' first step to a obedient life (acts 6:7)" Where is your PROOF that "Baptism is a Christians' first step to a obedient life (acts 6:7)"??? It MOST CERTAINLY is NOT in Acts 6:7. Please provide an EXAMPLE of where one was SAVED FIRST, then BAPTIZED as a first step to an obedient life??? David wrote, "As to your false assumption, I would have done exactly what Philip did. At this point, it should be obvious to any reader that water baptism DOES NOT forgive sins, and that you ([name omitted]) exclusively base your water dogma on the word FOR." No false assumption here, baptism is FOR the remission of sins, EXACTLY as Acts 2:38, Acts 22:16 and several other verses teach. Baptism is NOT "because of" remission of sins, as David FALSELY ASSERTS. Please notice dear readers that David does NOT have any verses that state that we are baptized "because of" or because our sins are already washed away. Every reputable translation that I know of translates the word "eis" in Acts 2:38 as FOR the remission of sins and NOT "because of" as David FALSELY ASSERTS. I wrote, "It is INTERESTING to note that a few verses later, Paul tells King Agrippa that he was NOT disobedient to the vision in that he, "but declared first to those in Damascus and in Jerusalem, and throughout all the region of Judea, and then to the Gentiles, that they should repent, turn to God, and do works befitting repentance." (Acts 26:20). Please notice dear readers that REPENTANCE is INCLUDED in what Paul taught to the Gentiles and this is in EXACT harmony with what the apostle Peter taught the Jews on the day of Pentecost in Acts 2:38 when he told the Jews to REPENT and be baptized for the remission of your sins" To which David replies: "Repentance is a synonym for believe. You don't repent unless you believe the truth you hear. When you believe, you are forgiven (acts 10:43) and you are baptized in obedience (acts 6:7) because you were forgiven of your sins (acts 2:38). Acts 2:38- Repent for the remission of sins, and let each one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ." Repentance is NOT a "synonym for believe" as David FALSELY ASSERTS. God says, godly sorrow produces REPENTANCE LEADING TO salvation (2 Corinthians 7:10). David says believe and repent are two sides of the same thing. (Scripture???). Repentance is what changes a man's lifestyle. It is in repentance which IS a change of mind that results in a change of life, that man decides he will change his ways, turn from his sinful past and live for Christ (Luke 13:3; Acts 2:38). Repentance IS REQUIRED in order for a person to be saved. God "commands all men everywhere to repent." (Acts 17:30). Repentance is UNTO life (Acts 11:18). Those who do NOT repent WILL perish (Luke 13:3). Obviously, salvation CANNOT be by "faith only" if repentance is also REQUIRED. David wrote, "Christians are suppose to be obedient (Acts 6:7). Those who aren't obedient ARE NOT Christians and do not love God! Even though water baptism is important for obedience, it still DOES NOT remit sins. Those who believe RECEIVE remission of sins (Acts 10:43), and are baptized (in obedience, acts 6:7) because they were forgiven of their sins (acts 2:38)." Yes, Christians are supposed to be OBEDIENT for Jesus is the author of eternal salvation to all who OBEY Him. (Heb. 5:9). To claim that one is saved by "faith only", then is OBEDIENT is NOT what the word of God teaches David. You have been DECEIVED. Those who BELIEVE do NOT receive remission of their sins, otherwise the demons would also have remission of sins for they also BELIEVE AND TREMBLE. Those who CLAIM that they are Christians by being saved by "faith only" are NOT really Christians because they have NOT obeyed Jesus COMMAND to be baptized IN water FOR the remission of their sins. David wrote, "Saul was already saved before he was baptized in water. Acts 9:17,18 - He was filled with the Spirit BEFORE baptism. Acts 22:10, he already submitted in faith to Christ by calling him "Lord". Acts 22:13 and Acts 9:17 he is called "Brother Saul". He was saved on the Damascus Road. Acts 9:17 tells us why he went to Ananias - To receive his eyesight." No, Saul was NOT already saved before he was baptized in water. He was NOT filled with the Spirit before being baptized where is your PROOF David that Saul was "filled with the Spirit BEFORE baptism"??? If Saul was ALREADY saved before he was baptized IN water, then Ananaias must have LIED TO HIM when he told him to arise and BE BAPTIZED AND WASH AWAY YOUR SINS. Just because someone calls Jesus Lord, is NO PROOF that they are submitting to Christ in Faith for this FALSE DOCTRINE of yours is EASILY REFUTED by Jesus own words in Matthew 7:21. Saul was called "Brother Saul" in Acts 22:13 and 9:17 BECAUSE HE WAS A JEW just as Ananias was a JEW. He went to Ananias because Jesus told him in Acts 9:6, "Arise and go into the city, and you will be told what you must do." Ananias told him EXACTLY what he must do he told him to BE BAPTIZED AND WASH AWAY HIS SINS. I wrote, "It is INTERESTING to note that there is NO MENTION of faith as a REQUIREMENT for one to be saved in this passage of Scripture. When the Jews asked what they must do, did Peter say, "BELIEVE and you are saved" or did he say, "Repent and be BAPTIZED!"?" To which David replied: "It is interesting to note that [name omitted] inserts meanings into the Word of God. The Jews DID NOT ask,"what shall we do to be saved" (unlike the Philippian Jailer, acts 16:30-32) The Jews were ALREADY SAVED because Peter had just proclaimed Christ as Lord and Savior in Acts 2:22-36 and they BELIEVED his words. Now they were feeling guilty of crucifying their messiah and asked,"what shall we do?". They were saved already, so Peter tells them to baptized in the name of Jesus Christ - the one they murdered. It was his death that brought them forgiveness of sins." No, [name omitted] does NOT insert meanings into the word of God. The verse in question is Acts 2:37 and the Jews DID ASK "Men and brethren, what shall we do?" If this does NOT mean ,"what shall we do to be saved", then the Jews really did NOT know what they were asking then did they David??? Why would they even ask this question if they were ALREADY SAVED??? If they were ALREADY SAVED, they would NOT have asked this question. Peter tells them to REPENT of their sin of murdering Jesus Christ (the messiah). Please note that David claims that REPENTANCE and BELIEF are the same thing. Then Peter tells them to be BAPTIZED FOR the REMISSION OF THEIR SINS. Peter would NOT have told them to be baptized FOR the remission of their sins if their sins were already washed away by only believing in Jesus. I wrote, "No, this is NOT true!!! Dear readers, please notice how David is TWISTING the word of God when he says that "The Gift of the Holy Ghost comes BEFORE baptism (Acts 10:43- 48)". It is OBVIOUS that he did NOT read Acts 8:14-16 which states, "Now when the apostles who were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent Peter and John to them, who, when they had come down, prayed for them that THEY MIGHT RECEIVE THE HOLY SPIRIT. For as yet HE HAD FALLEN UPON NONE OF THEM. They HAD ONLY BEEN BAPTIZED IN THE NAME OF THE LORD JESUS." To which David replied: "That was a special case; God delayed it (until Peter and John came) and gave a public sign (laying-on of hands) to prove Samaritans were believers just like the Jews and not inferior to them." This is NOT a "special case" as David FALSELY ASSERTS. I CHALLENGE YOU David to PROVE that ANYONE other than Cornelius and his household (and the apostles on the day of Pentecost) received the Holy Spirit BEFORE they were baptized. If you CANNOT do this, then there is NO SUCH THING as a "special case" and you are not speaking the truth. I wrote, "This is PROOF that David is TWISTING the word of God. The gift of the Holy Spirit does NOT come before baptism, otherwise those in Samaria who were baptized would have received the Holy Spirit BEFORE they were baptized and this was NOT the case." To which David replied: "Your right, that was a SPECIAL case. Forgiveness (remission) of sins comes BEFORE the gift of the Holy Ghost (acts 2:38), the gift comes BEFORE water baptism (acts 10:43-48), therefore, forgiveness of sins comes BEFORE water baptism. Were are saved the same way as the Gentile Cornelius and his family were (acts 10) " My reply: Yes, we are saved the same way that Cornelius and his family were saved, but that is NOT by "faith only" as David CLAIMS. In EVERY case of conversion recorded in the book of Acts, people were required to OBEY the terms given in the Great Commission in order to be saved. In Acts 2, the Jews on Pentecost heard Peter preach the gospel. They were "cut to the heart, and said to Peter and the rest of the apostles, "Men and brethren, what shall we do?" They were commanded to "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ FOR the remission of your sins..." (Acts 2:37-38). Saul of Tarsus saw the Lord on the road to Damascus. He was told to go into the city and he would be told what HE MUST DO. He prayed and fasted for three days, but still was NOT saved (Acts 9:1-19). Ananias was sent to tell him to "Arise and BE BAPTIZED, AND WASH AWAY YOUR SINS, calling on the name of the Lord" (Acts 22:16). All the conditions of salvation (Faith, Repentance, Confession, and Baptism) are implied, if not stated, in every example of conversion in the book of Acts. Baptism is mentioned specifically in most of them (Acts 8:12,13; 36-39; 9:18; 10:48; 16:15, 33,34; 18:8; 19:5). These are the examples of conversion which we MUST follow if we want to be saved today! Dear reader, if you believe that you have been saved by "faith only", then you have believed a LIE. To be continued in Part 2.
KJV Scriptures Used
Read each passage in its chapter and compare the Scriptures together.